Military Intelligence Basic Officer Leader Course (MIBOLC) – Deter Practice Test

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• Which statement best describes the Threat Model?
• Which term is defined as 'An identifiable characteristic whose seizure or retention affords a marked advantage'?
• In targeting, which term pertains to the results of lethal and nonlethal engagements on targets designated by the commander?
• Which term matches the description: 'Any natural or man-made obstruction designed to disrupt, fix, turn, or block the movement of an opposing force, and to impose additional losses in personnel, time, and equipment on the opposing force'?
• What does Mission Analysis identify as gaps?
• In MDMP Step 3, which practice is used as a starting point for estimating the relative combat power required?
• ASCOPE stands for which civil considerations acronym?
• In Targeting, the output of the Decide step that is a prioritized list of high-payoff targets by phase of the operation is called what?
• Which MDMP step occurs after COA Development?
• Which assessment is the broad, relatively permanent assessment of the overall impact and effectiveness of all types of engagement against an entire target system capability?
• What are the four Significant Characteristics of the OE?
• __________ is the determination of the effectiveness of force employment during military operations.
• Which step in the D3A Methodology executes the target engagement guidance and supports the commander's battle plan after the high-value target has been located and identified?
• The Commander and staff will ________ to determine the estimated duration of the operation, projected enemy losses, and targeting requirements.
• Which component of OAKOC addresses lines of observation and fire opportunities?
• What is the term for arranging forces after determining the relative combat power required?
• Which product depicts the information collection plan in graphic form as an appendix to annex L (Information Collection) to the operation order?
• What is the third step in the continual process of information collection?
• Which MDMP step involves analyzing potential COAs?
• One of the products of Targeting (specifically in the Decide step) The Attack Guidance Matrix is a targeting product approved by the commander that addresses how and when targets are engaged and the desired effects.
• Which deliverable in MDMP Step 3 is used to communicate a proposed course of action to staff, including tasks and organization?
• What are the three primary products (supporting tools) of Intelligence Collection?
• What are the three Areas that define the Operational Environment (OE)?
• What does D3A stand for?
• Which document provides a cross-referenced description of indicators and activity for each Named Area of Interest by linking the NAI and enemy decision points with indicators?
• Which type requires establishing criteria for engagement during planning to avoid major adverse consequences?
• IPB inputs are drawn from several sources. Which is NOT listed as a source?
• CCIRs are information the commander and staff need to understand the status of what?
• Which form of fulfilling collection requirements involves the use of one or more sensor systems to provide data that directs collection by other systems, with best use targeting?
• What are the two types of planned targets (Deliberate)?
• Which group is a temporary assembly that provides targeting decision recommendations for command approval?
• Which list consists of objects or entities protected by the Law of War, International Laws, and Rules of Engagement?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of OAKOC?
• In MDMP, which step involves comparing COAs to identify the best option?
• Which element is defined as a clear and concise expression of the operation's purpose, initial key tasks, and the desired end state?
• In the D3A framework, the step that involves detecting and tracking targets using all available assets is called what?
• During the COA comparison, staff analyze each COA from their perspectives focusing on which two elements?
• Which step draws heavily on IPB and knowledge of the enemy to set priorities for intelligence collection and engagement planning?
• The Situation Template is made up of what two components?
• Which activity occurs immediately after developing COA statements and sketches in MDMP Step 3?
• What is the first MDMP step?
• Which term refers to essential elements of information that, if compromised, would jeopardize mission success?
• Under the Deliver step, which category of decisions determines time of engagement, desired effect, asset to be used, and potential collateral damage?
• Which Annex covers detailed information and intelligence on the operational environment and directs intelligence and counterintelligence activities?
• _____ includes known or estimated enemy unit strengths, degraded, neutralized, or destroyed enemy weapon systems, and all known captured, wounded, or killed enemy personnel during the reporting period.
• In the WARNO contents, which item is included?
• Avenue of Approach describes the route by which a force approaches to seize key terrain. Which option best reflects this term?
• In the MDMP sequence, which step follows COA Comparison?
• What is the definition of Combat Power?
• Which MDMP step immediately follows Mission Analysis?
• A graphic overlay used to confirm or deny enemy COAs is known as which document?
• ____s are broken down into indicators, which are then broken down into SIRs.
• In MDMP, COA Analysis (War-gaming) is performed during which step?
• What is the fourth guideline of targeting?
• NAI stands for?
• The steps listed are part of which MDMP step?
• A Critical Event is defined as what?
• The term that links PIRs with indicators, SIRs, NAIs, and TAIs, constructed in a spreadsheet format and including individual worksheets, providing detailed collection and reporting requirements, is what?
• Which item is NOT listed as a Step 6 key output?
• Which IPB step is dedicated to evaluating the Threat?
• What is the term for the systematic examination of potential target systems to determine the necessary type and duration of action to achieve the commander's objectives?
• S2 will make ______________________ to assist the S3 in designating High Payoff Targets (HPTs)
• Which items are included as Key Outputs of MDMP Step 2?
• Which MDMP step results in the production of the final orders?
• What are the two targeting categories?
• An Indicator is an item of information which reflects the intention or capability of an enemy to adopt or reject a COA. This describes a:
• FFIRs are intelligence requirements associated with a decision that will affect the overall success and are tied to which of the following?
• What is the fourth step in the continual process of information collection?
• These steps occur during which MDMP step: Conduct advantages and disadvantages analysis; Compare COAs; COA selection rationale; Conduct a COA decision briefing; Update IPB products?
• What are the three elements of a Combat Assessment?
• Which dynamic target type refers to targets that are known to exist in the area but for which no action has been planned due to timing or importance?
• What is the term used for the set of effects the commander aims to produce through targeting guidance?
• In the MDMP sequence, which part of Orders describes the conditions of the operational environment that impact operations?
• Which statement best differentiates CCIRs from FFIRs?
• Which characterization describes Unanticipated targets?
• The best PIRs enable a Commander's Decision and answer a 5 W's question.
• Which guideline states that the targeting process creates effects systematically?
• In Effective War-Gaming, the Commander and staff will ________.
• Which document is always accompanied by an Event Matrix?
• The tool used to record war-gaming results and help synchronize a COA with enemy and civil action across time, space, and purpose is the?
• Target Vetting is a part of target development that assesses the accuracy of the supporting intelligence to targeting—asking, is this the right target?
• Which step yields refined commander's intent, CCIRs, and EEFI's as outputs?
• What kind of effects can targets be addressed with (including the combination of both)?
• Which MDMP step is responsible for developing possible courses of action?
• Which form of fulfilling collection requirements uses the combination of assets from different disciplines covering the same Named Area of Interest (NAI), reducing the chance of enemy deception or errors, and is best used for locating enemy artillery positions or HQs?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between deliberate and dynamic targeting categories?
• Which term describes protection by covering or concealment in terrain analysis?
• Target Development is the systematic examination of potential target systems and their components, individual targets, and even elements of targets to determine the necessary type and duration of the action to create an effect that aligns with the commander's objectives.
• Which assessment estimates the effect of engagement on the target to perform its intended mission?
• What is the second guideline of targeting?
• Dynamic targets are best described as targets that are identified too late or not selected for action in time to be included in the deliberative category, making them typically classified as:
• ____ is the geographical area where information that will satisfy a specific intelligence requirement can be collected.
• Which staff section is primarily responsible for intelligence preparation of the battlefield and IPB products?
• The S2 must ensure IPB products are integrated into ____ _________________
• Who can designate Time-Sensitive Target?
• What is the third guideline of targeting?
• Which COA screening criterion ensures the COA can accomplish the mission within the commander's intent and planning guidance?
• Which step validates the overall effectiveness by evaluating the outcomes of the engagement?
• Which list includes valid targets with constraints such as limiting collateral damage and restricting strike methods?
• In IPB Step 2, which items describe Threat Characteristics?
• Which item is NOT part of Information Collection in IPB Step 3?
• Which terrain severely hinders movement in combat formations unless some effort is made to enhance mobility?
• Which matrix addresses accuracy and timeliness requirements for engagement?
• NAI stands for what?
• What are the four planning requirements and assessing collection functions?
• Which item is NOT listed as a step in the COA Analysis Process?
• Which part of the Orders includes leadership locations and signal support?
• Which Annex is described as Information Collection?
• Which option correctly names the three War-Gaming methods?
• In IPB, which step is Define the OE?
• In the Assess step, what are you assessing?
• Which of the following is listed as a Step 5 key input?
• Which step is associated with obtaining formal approval for the chosen COA?
• A measure of what asks whether the tasks were completed to standard and we are doing things right?
• MDMP Step 7 Key Outputs include which of the following?
• Which step answers which targets to engage?
• After a COA is approved, which document contains the area of operations, mission, commander's intent, Updated CCIRs and EEFIs, concept of operations, principal tasks assigned to subordinate units, preparation and rehearsal instructions not included in the SOPs, and a final timeline for the operations?
• The five guidelines are part of which concept?
• In the D3A framework, what element provides recommendations for reengagement if initial engagement did not meet objectives?
• Which overlay consolidates vegetation, surface drainage, and other effects into a single obstacle concept?
• Part 4 of Orders covers logistics, personnel and health services.
• Which product is used by the intelligence staff to synchronize information collection tasks across the current threat assessment and friendly concept of operations, enabling horizontal and vertical synchronization across commands?
• Which guideline states that the targeting process encompasses many disciplines and requires participation from many staff elements and components?
• The degree of reliability and credibility of a Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) largely depends on which assets?
• Which item is listed as a Step 6 key input?
• On-Call targets are described as?
• PIRs are broken down into indicators, which are then broken down into ____s.
• Which WARNO item reflects updates to intelligence and execution measures?
• Which acronym expands to Information Collection Synchronization Matrix?
• In the Deliver step, what are you delivering?
• Which assessment evaluates the military force in terms of the weapon system and munitions effectiveness?
• Which item is listed as a Step 5 key input?
• Which COA screening criterion balances cost and risk with the advantage gained?
• The Information Collection Matrix is a product used by the intelligence officer to ensure that collection tasks are tied to scheme of maneuver in time and space, effectively linking reconnaissance and surveillance to maneuver and effects.
• This is the process of developing ____'s.
• In a Threat Capability Statement, which two aspects are cross-checked?
• What is the last step listed in the MDMP sequence?
• PMESIIPT stands for which categories used in intelligence analysis?
• Under the Deliver step, which category of decisions determines precise delivery means, munition number and type, unit conducting the attack, and attacking unit response time; these decisions are based on the other category.
• What does SIR stand for?
• Which objective describes efforts to maximize combat power while protecting friendly forces and anticipating operational events?
• Mobility Corridors describe which concept?
• You develop the Threat Model using which data source?
• Target engagement decisions fall into two categories. These decisions result in the physical engagement of the target.
• What does PIR stand for?
• Which term refers to a restriction list that prohibits striking protected objects?
• These are the ____ ___________ of MDMP Step 4
• Which statement correctly identifies the first step in the Information Collection process?
• Which form of fulfilling collection requirements involves several assets of the same discipline to cover the same NAI or TAI, and is used when the commander cannot afford a gap in collection?
• Which is the second step in developing the Information Collection plan?
• What does TAI stand for?
• Which step of D3A yields the High Payoff Target List, Target Selection Standards Matrix, and Attack Guidance Matrix?
• Which activity determines the conditions and resources required for success?
• What are the three components of a Battle Damage Assessment (BDA)?
• Which items are included as Key Inputs of MDMP Step 2?
• In Severely Restricted Terrain, the distance for a Battalion is which measurement?
• Which MDMP step involves evaluating the potential COAs to understand their feasibility, suitability, and risks?
• Which of the following is a Step 6 key input?
• The Target Selections Standards Matrix is determined using weapon system target location accuracy requirements (TLE), size of the enemy activity, status of the activity, and timeliness of the information.
• In D3A, which step is responsible for delivering the appropriate effects?
• Which process allows the staff to synchronize the six warfighting functions for each COA?
• Which file set is used to develop and support threat modeling?
• What four elements describe the characteristics of a Threat Assault?
• In the continual process of information collection, what is the second step?
• In the COA Analysis process, which task is a responsibility of S2?
• The three steps “Identify the threat's likely objectives and desired end state; Identify the full set of COAs available to the threat; Evaluate and prioritize each COA” correspond to which IPB step?
• MDMP Step 7 Key Inputs include which of the following item sets?
• The staff ensures the plan is internally consistent and nested with the higher commander's intent through plan and orders ______ and ______.
• One of the two types of planned targets (Deliberate) - These kinds of targets exist in the AO and are located in sufficient time so that fires or other actions upon them are identified for engagement at a specific, planned time.
• Which step provides the overall focus and sets priorities and criteria for intelligence collection and engagement planning?
• The mission statement must be understood two echelons down. Which option best matches this requirement?
• The targeting process weighs the benefits and costs of engaging various targets to determine which targets, if engaged, are most likely to contribute to achieving the desired end state. What is this concept called?
• Which product helps build the information collection plan?
• A Targeting Working Group is a group of predetermined staff involved with targeting who meet to provide analysis, coordination, updating, and synchronization of the targeting process, and provide recommendations to the targeting board.
• Which MDMP step’s outputs include Updated Assumptions?
• Cueing is primarily used for which purpose?
• The first step in the continual process of Information Collection is
• A failure to achieve BDA requires a commander decision as to whether to continue as planned. This falls under which element of the Combat Assessment?
• Information Requirements focus the efforts of which group?
• In Severely Restricted Terrain, areas where a force will be canalized due to terrain constrictions are described as which terrain type?
• Which of the following best describes Battle Damage Assessment (BDA)?
• _____ ______________ is a disciplined process with steps that attempt to visualize the flow of the operation, given the force's strengths and dispositions, the enemy's capabilities, and possible COAs; the impact and requirements of civilians in the area of operations
• IPB is part of which MDMP Step?
• Which items are included as tangible and intangible factors when assessing Combat Power?
• Which of the following is not a MDMP Step 7 key input?
• Which guideline states that actions should be directed toward creating the desired effects?
• In assessment terms, which measure answers if we are doing the right things?
• Which MDMP step focuses on producing the orders after a decision is made?
• What is the fifth guideline of targeting?
• Which COA screening criterion ensures the COA can accomplish the mission within the established time, space, and resource limitations?
• A Targeting Board is a temporary grouping of selected staff with delegated decision authority to provide targeting decision recommendations for command approval.
• What are the three War-Gaming methods?
• Which option lists the correct order for the first three MDMP steps?
• Who carries the doctrinal responsibility for Annex B?
• What activity involves presenting the proposed COAs to the staff for review?
• In the Decision Matrix, which rankings are more preferred?
• Which MDMP Step includes assigning Headquarters?
• What are the two appendixes in Annex L?
• Which of the following is listed as a Step 5 key input?
• Which term is defined as a planning methodology to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operation plan or order?
• Targets identified too late or not selected for action in time to be included in the other category belong to which targeting category?
• PIRs are broken down into ______________s, which are then broken down into SIRs.
• MCOO includes which elements?
• A High-Payoff Target is a High Value Target that must be acquired and engaged for the success of the friendly commander's mission.
• The four parts that form the basis for creating an Information Collection plan are
• What is the third step to assess relative Combat Power?
• During the Plans and Orders ______, the staff compares the plan or order with that of the higher and adjacent commanders to achieve unity of effort and ensure the plan meets the superior commander's intent.
• Which list provides restrictions such as limiting collateral damage and preserving ammunition for final protective fires?
• _____ ______________ are critical to developing friendly COAs
• How many steps are listed in the MDMP sequence?
• What portion of the D3A Methodology takes place during steps 1-4 of MDMP?
• In Effective War-Gaming, which step involves detailing the locations and times of decisive points, the enemy event template and matrix, control measures, and updated CCIRs into the information collection plan?
• What document is issued after COA approval to guide execution, priorities, and preparation?
• Part 3 of Orders describes how the Commander intends to accomplish the mission, including the Commander’s intent, tasks, concept of operation, employment of each warfighting function and coordinating instructions.
• In the Decide step of the D3A Methodology, what are you deciding?
• Which COA screening criterion states that the decisive operation leads to mission accomplishment?
• What is the purpose of comparing friendly strengths against enemy weaknesses, and vice versa?
• What are the two forms of unique targeting categories that could fit under deliberate or dynamic?
• Which dynamic target type refers to targets that are unknown or not expected to exist in the area of operations?
• Which term describes the art and science of understanding a situation, envisioning a desired future, and laying out effective ways of bringing that future about?
• In the Deliver function of D3A, engagement must satisfy the engagement guidance developed in the ______ function.
• In IPB Step 1, which matrix covers Weather Effects?
• In the Detect step of D3A, the operations officer must work closely with multiple roles such as the intelligence officer, ACE (Analysis and Control Element), Information Operations Officer, FAIO (Field Artillery Intelligence Officer), Targeting Officer, and FSO (Fire Support Officer).
• A Step of MDMP 3 which outcome does it emphasize by concisely expressing the how of the commander's visualization, providing the framework for the concept of operations, and summarizing the contributions of all warfighting functions?
• Which statement best describes an Effect?
• Which acronym represents the processing, exploitation, and dissemination phases?
• Which term identifies essential elements of friendly information that, if compromised, would jeopardize mission success?
• What are the two types of targets of opportunity (Dynamic)?
• Which step in MDMP follows Mission Analysis?
• In assessment terms, a measure of which asks are we doing the right things?
• Mobility Corridors describe which concept?
• Information Requirements directly affect which outcome?
• What is the Modified Combined Obstacle Overlay?
• What are the three components of the Threat Model?
• A High Value Target is a target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission.
• Which IPB step involves Determine Environmental Effects on Operations?
• In the Effective War-Gaming process, the step that covers identifying the most dangerous and most likely enemy COA and confirming NAIs, TAIs, DPs, and intelligence requirements is which?
• ASCOPE is a framework used to assess civil considerations. Which elements are included?
• Which matrix addresses accuracy or other criteria that must be met before targets can be attacked?
• Which IPB step focuses on describing environmental effects on operations?
• Which option is not listed as a step in the continual process of information collection?
• The ____ will highlight threat objectives, decision points, HVTL, and potential vulnerabilities in MDMP Step 3
• Scheduled targets are characterized by being located in the AO in sufficient time to ensure engagement at a specific, planned time.
• Which set lists the five steps the Commander and staff perform on each friendly COA during Effective War-Gaming?
• What are the three operational frameworks used to generate options?
• Which unit distance is listed for a Company in Severely Restricted Terrain?
• These are the ____ of MDMP Step 3.
• Which acronym corresponds to Political, Military, Economic, Social, Information, Infrastructure, Physical Environment, Time?
• Which term is used to identify High Value Targets (HVT) in threat analysis?
• Which group consists of predetermined staff involved with targeting who meet to provide analysis, coordination, updating, and synchronization of the targeting process?
• Which items are included in the Commander's Intent?
• Which MDMP step comes immediately before COA Approval?
• What is the first guideline of targeting?
• What part of target development ensures vetted targets meet objectives and compliance with the law of war and ROE?
• One of the targeting categories - this category prosecutes targets of opportunity and changes to planned targets or objectives; previously unanticipated.
• In the Detect step, what are you detecting?
• Which assessment is a broad assessment of the overall impact and effectiveness of all types of engagement against an entire target system capability, and is relatively permanent?
• NAI stands for?
• Which component recognizes key systems by WFF?
• What do COA Statements and Sketches cover?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Combat Assessment?
• Which acronym expands to Information Collection Matrix?
• Which product is used to ensure linkage of reconnaissance and surveillance to maneuver and effects?
• Which component graphically portrays how the threat might use its capabilities to accomplish its objectives when not constrained by the OE?
• What are the two key elements of CCIRs?
• Which portion of the D3A Methodology takes place during steps 5-7 of MDMP?
• In Effective War-Gaming, the Commander and staff will ________ to produce the synchronization effort.
• Which terrain feature's seizure and retention is mandatory for successful mission accomplishment?
• Which staff section is responsible for highlighting threat objectives, decision points, HVTL, HPTs, and vulnerabilities during COA Comparison?
• Which statement best describes the relationship among PIRs, indicators, and SIRs?
• Which statement about the mission statement is true?
• The Attack Guidance Matrix includes at a minimum...
• These are the ____ _________ of MDMP Step 3
• Which statement best describes a Time-Sensitive Target?
• Line of Sight is defined as which of the following?
• ASCOPE-PMESSIIPT crosswalk is used in which IPB step for Civil Considerations?
• Which COA screening criterion requires that each COA differ significantly from the others?
• What is the purpose of Target Validation in target development?
• Which word is not part of the D3A acronym?
• Mission Analysis helps identify gaps in information for which MDMP step?
• What methodology facilitates the engagement of the right target with the right asset at the right time?
• An ______ is the physical or behavioral state of a system that results from an action; the result, outcome, or consequence of an action; or a change to a condition, behavior, or degree of freedom.
• Which Annex describes how information collection activities supports the operations described in the base order?
• What are the five COA Screening Criteria?
• The Threat Model has three components. Which of the following is a component?
• Which component estimates the extent of physical damage through munitions blast, fragmentation, and fire damage to a target?
• Which MDMP step is to determine threat COAs?
• PIR are intelligence requirements tied to what?
• In the MDMP sequence, which part of Orders states the Unit's Mission?
• Which staff sections are typically responsible for information collection within Annex L?
• What are the two methods of generating options?
• What is the term for the targeting product approved by the commander that addresses how and when targets are engaged and the desired effects?
• IPB Step 1 requires describing the Environmental Effects on Operations. Which tool is used for terrain analysis?
• Which factors are included in the Military Aspects of Weather (WATCH-VP) assessment?
• Which term describes deliberate targets that have actions planned but no specific delivery time?
• Which incline is associated with Restricted Terrain?
• In which MDMP step are IPB updates included as part of the COA process?
• Which five terms complete the phrase describing the steps used for each COA in Effective War-Gaming?
• A Time-Sensitive Target is a joint force commander validated target that requires immediate response because it is highly lucrative, fleeting, or poses danger. It can only be designated by the JFC.
• Part 5 of Orders covers where key leaders are and the concept of signal support.
• War-Gaming follows an action-reaction-counteraction cycle. Which process follows this cycle?
• The Event Template is produced during IPB Step 4 and used during MDMP COA Analysis to describe enemy actions; which two steps are involved?
• Which statement best describes Information Requirements?
• Which tool uses evaluation criteria to assess COAs in MDMP Step 5?
• Which MDMP step involves evaluating and selecting the preferred COA?
• Which assessment evaluates the military force in terms of the weapon system and munitions effectiveness?
• What does AOI stand for in IPB?
• Which acronym expands to Information Collection Overlay?
• What are the two types of lists a commander can develop to provide restrictions as part of their targeting guidance?
• Why should COA screening criteria ensure each COA differs significantly from the others?
• Which item is identified as the most important step in the MDMP?
• The tool used to record results of war-gaming to synchronize a COA across time, space, and purpose is called what?
• Which statement best describes the High Payoff Target List?
• One of the targeting categories - this category prosecutes planned targets; these targets exist in the AO and have action schedules against them.
• Which statement best describes the MDMP Step 3 focus after deciding decisive and shaping operations?